An operating boiler that produces superheated steam @ 2400psig and 1005F develops a pinhole leak in the steam drum. The drum is at saturation conditions (~2500 psig and ~ 680F). It has been argued amongst my colleagues that the condition of the steam at the leak is saturation because it was at saturation conditions in the drum. I believe that the steam is superheated at the leak because, while there will be some energy loss due to the throttling effect at the pinhole, there will still be enough thermal energy to superheated the steam until it has expanded in the atmosphere and loses enough energy to become saturated steam. Am I correct in this assumption? Is it possible to prove this point? |